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Wednesday, December 5, 2018

I wonder why the distinction?


I wonder why Scripture makes this distinction?

John 4:1-3(NKJV)
Therefore, when the Lord knew that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John 
(though Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples), 
He left Judea and departed again to Galilee. 

Why was it important to point out that Jesus Himself didn't baptize people, that it was His disciples who did so?  I don't recall the other Gospels making that distinction.   At this point I don't even have a guess. 

I'll be watching for clues as to the answer for this one. 

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