I wonder why
Scripture makes this distinction?
John 4:1-3(NKJV)
Therefore, when the
Lord knew that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more
disciples than John
(though Jesus Himself did not
baptize, but His disciples),
He left Judea and
departed again to Galilee.
Why was it important
to point out that Jesus Himself didn't baptize people, that it was His
disciples who did so? I don't recall the
other Gospels making that distinction.
At this point I don't even have a guess.
I'll be watching for
clues as to the answer for this one.
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