Isn't James guilty of the very thing he accuses others of?

Partiality...what does it mean?

partiality

1. the state or character of being partial.

2. a favorable bias or prejudice:

the partiality of parents for their own children.

3. a special fondness, preference, or liking (usually followed by to or for):

a partiality for country living.

Pasted from <http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/partiality>

In other words, don't favor one side over the other.  Treat both sides equally. 

So lets take a look at what James has to say.

James 2:1-9(NKJV)

My brethren, do not hold the faith of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Lord of glory, with partiality. 

For if there should come into your assembly a man with gold rings, in fine apparel, and there should also come in a poor man in filthy clothes, 

and you pay attention to the one wearing the fine clothes and say to him, “You sit here in a good place,” and say to the poor man, “You stand there,” or, “Sit here at my footstool,” 

have you not shown partiality among yourselves, and become judges with evil thoughts?

Listen, my beloved brethren: Has God not chosen the poor of this world to be rich in faith and heirs of the kingdom which He promised to those who love Him? 

But you have dishonored the poor man. Do not the rich oppress you and drag you into the courts? 

Do they not blaspheme that noble name by which you are called?

If you really fulfill the royal law according to the Scripture, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself,”  you do well; 

but if you show partiality, you commit sin, and are convicted by the law as transgressors. 

Seems to me that James is biased against the rich.  He only has negative things to say about them.  In essence it seems that all rich are conniving, thieving, schemers who are worthy of nothing but contempt.  

That sure isn't Scriptural, unless you think God rewards those he favors with evil.  Do you think that?  What am I talking about?  God made Solomon the richest man in history at the time he was alive.  God did that as part of God's testament to His own greatness.  Is James suggesting that  God had evil intentions by creating another evil rich person? 

 Isn't showing partiality to either side sinful?

I want to touch on one other thing as well.  What do you think God means when referring to the poor in this sentence?

Has God not chosen the poor of this world to be rich in faith and heirs of the kingdom which He promised to those who love Him? 

Do you think this means the poor get to go to Heaven whether they believe in Jesus or not?  Or is it just possible that there was a different meaning to poor here? 

I'll leave you to ponder that one.